Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with COPD, which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day.
• B. Encourage the client to use the upper chest for respiration.
• C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity.
• D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing. This technique helps improve breathing efficiency by keeping the airways open during exhalation and reducing air trapping. Restricting fluid intake to less than 2 L/day is not appropriate for a client with COPD, as they need adequate hydration. Using the upper chest for respiration is incorrect as it promotes shallow breathing, which is not ideal for COPD patients. While exercise is beneficial, early-morning hours may not be the best time for clients with COPD due to increased respiratory distress in the morning.

2. A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce the nitroglycerin dose
• B. Ask the provider to prescribe a strong analgesic
• C. Lie down in a cool environment and rest
• D. Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to lie down in a cool environment and rest after taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, and resting in a cool environment can help alleviate the headache. Reducing the nitroglycerin dose is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider as it may compromise the effectiveness of the medication in managing angina. Asking for a strong analgesic is not appropriate since the headache is likely related to the nitroglycerin and not a separate issue requiring a pain reliever. Requesting a different medication should also involve consulting the healthcare provider to ensure an appropriate alternative is prescribed for angina management.

3. A client who is HIV-positive, has pneumonia and is not responding to antibiotic therapy may have active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) due to exposure history and symptoms of night sweats and hemoptysis. Which test is the most reliable to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Presence of bronchophony
• C. Mantoux test
• D. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. The most reliable test to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB is the sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. This test helps identify the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of TB, in the sputum. Chest x-rays can show characteristic findings of TB but are not as reliable as sputum cultures for confirmation. Bronchophony is a test for assessing vocal resonance and is not specific for TB diagnosis. The Mantoux test is a screening test for TB exposure but cannot confirm active disease.

4. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client is on airborne precautions and is being treated with multidrug therapy. A chest x-ray is scheduled for the client. Which of the following is not a precaution the nurse should take to safely transport the client to x-ray?

• A. Ask the x-ray technician to come to the client's room to perform a portable x-ray.
• B. Have the client wear a mask.
• C. Notify the x-ray department that the client is on airborne precautions.
• D. Wear a filtration mask and gloves for protection against the client's microorganisms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the x-ray technician to come to the client's room to perform a portable x-ray. This option minimizes the risk of exposing other individuals to the client's infectious microorganisms during transport. Having the client wear a mask (Choice B) and notifying the x-ray department about airborne precautions (Choice C) are crucial precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Additionally, wearing a filtration mask and gloves (Choice D) is essential for the nurse's protection when in direct contact with the client, but it is not directly related to transporting the client to the x-ray department.

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