ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Episodes of hypomania
- B. Periods of elevated mood
- C. Lack of interest in activities
- D. Feelings of detachment from one's body
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should expect in a client diagnosed with persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is a lack of interest in activities. This disorder is characterized by a chronic depressive mood lasting for at least two years, alongside symptoms such as changes in appetite, fatigue, low self-esteem, and difficulty concentrating. Clients with dysthymia do not typically experience hypomania, periods of elevated mood, or feelings of detachment from one's body, which are more commonly associated with other mood disorders. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect findings for a client with persistent depressive disorder.
2. A client displays signs and symptoms indicative of hypochondriasis. The nurse would initially expect to see:
- A. Self-preoccupation
- B. La belle indifference
- C. Fear of physicians
- D. Insight into the source of their fears
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypochondriasis, individuals are excessively preoccupied with and worried about having a serious illness, despite reassurance from medical professionals. This self-preoccupation is a key characteristic of hypochondriasis. 'La belle indifference' refers to a lack of concern or distress about symptoms, which is not typically seen in hypochondriasis. Fear of physicians may be present due to the individual's persistent belief in their illness despite medical reassurance. Insight into the source of their fears is usually lacking in hypochondriasis, as individuals often believe their physical symptoms are evidence of a serious illness.
3. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
- B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
- C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
- D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
4. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?
- A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
- B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
- C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
- D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.
5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
- B. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.
- C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
- D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should not stop taking buspirone (Buspar) abruptly as it may cause withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is correct as buspirone can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so avoiding driving is important. Choice C is also accurate because buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full effectiveness. Choice D is valid as buspirone is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access