Nursing Elites

1. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?

• A. Clonazepam
• B. Buspirone
• C. Propranolol
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.

2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

3. Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Sexual dysfunction
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a commonly reported side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). SSRIs can affect sexual function by causing issues such as decreased libido, delayed ejaculation, erectile dysfunction, or anorgasmia. Patients should be educated about these potential side effects when starting SSRIs to facilitate informed decision-making and appropriate management strategies. Incorrect Choices: A) Hypotension is not a common side effect of SSRIs. C) Increased appetite is not a common side effect of SSRIs. D) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of SSRIs.

4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

5. When planning care for a client with schizophrenia, which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage reality testing
• B. Provide opportunities for socialization
• C. Monitor for command hallucinations
• D. Promote adherence to medication regimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia, encouraging reality testing is essential. This intervention assists the client in distinguishing between delusions and reality, aiding in their treatment. While providing opportunities for socialization can help reduce isolation, monitoring for command hallucinations is crucial for the client's safety. Promoting adherence to the medication regimen is vital for symptom management. Addressing delusional thoughts in a therapeutic manner is preferable to outright discouragement, fostering a supportive environment for the client.

Similar Questions