Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder has been admitted to the psychiatric unit after a suicide attempt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to express feelings about the suicide attempt.
• B. Place the client on one-to-one observation.
• C. Discuss the client's feelings about the suicide attempt.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial priority for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Placing the client on one-to-one observation allows for constant monitoring and intervention if there are any signs of self-harm or a worsening condition. This immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further harm. Options A, C, and D involve therapeutic communication and interventions, which are important but should come after ensuring the client's safety.

2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Agree with the client's delusions to avoid confrontation.
• B. Challenge the client's delusions directly.
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their delusions in detail.
• D. Present reality and offer reassurance without reinforcing the delusions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions, the nurse should present reality and offer reassurance without reinforcing the client's delusions. This approach helps the client maintain a connection to reality while feeling supported. Agreeing with the delusions may perpetuate false beliefs, while directly challenging them can lead to increased distress for the client. Encouraging the client to discuss their delusions in detail may further exacerbate their symptoms or reinforce their false beliefs. Therefore, the most therapeutic intervention is to gently present reality and provide reassurance to the client.

3. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder, and a nurse is providing care. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?

• A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention for clients with borderline personality disorder as it helps establish an agreement between the client and the healthcare provider to abstain from self-harming behaviors. This contract aims to promote the client's safety by enhancing awareness and providing a structured approach in managing impulses and emotions.

4. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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