Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?

• A. Massage the client's legs every 2 hours.
• B. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Massaging the client's legs may dislodge a clot and is contraindicated in this situation (choice A). Encouraging bed rest may increase the risk of DVT due to prolonged immobility (choice B). While administering anticoagulants is a common treatment for DVT, in this case, the question is about preventive measures, and using sequential compression devices is a non-pharmacological approach.

2. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient for infection post-surgery?

• A. Monitor the surgical site
• B. Monitor for fever
• C. Check blood pressure
• D. Check for redness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the surgical site is crucial to identify early signs of infection post-surgery. Redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge at the surgical site can indicate an infection. While monitoring for fever (choice B) is important as fever can also be a sign of infection, it may not always present immediately post-surgery. Checking blood pressure (choice C) is essential for other purposes but not specifically for monitoring infection post-surgery. Checking for redness (choice D) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection, so it is not as comprehensive as monitoring the surgical site.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips.
• B. Red, swollen gums.
• C. White patches on the tongue.
• D. Pale, dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.

5. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low-protein diet
• B. High-protein diet
• C. Low-sodium diet
• D. High-sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-sodium diet. Patients with chronic kidney disease are often advised to follow a low-sodium diet to help manage fluid retention. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, causing complications for individuals with kidney issues. Choices A and B are incorrect because while protein intake may need to be monitored in kidney disease, the primary focus is typically on sodium restriction. Choice D is incorrect as a high-sodium diet would exacerbate fluid retention in patients with chronic kidney disease.

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