ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 2 hours.
- B. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Massaging the client's legs may dislodge a clot and is contraindicated in this situation (choice A). Encouraging bed rest may increase the risk of DVT due to prolonged immobility (choice B). While administering anticoagulants is a common treatment for DVT, in this case, the question is about preventive measures, and using sequential compression devices is a non-pharmacological approach.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
- B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
- C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
- D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.
3. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will place the eye drops in the center of my eye.
- B. I will place pressure on the corner of my eye after using the drops.
- C. I should expect my tears to turn red after using the drops.
- D. I should expect the drops to appear cloudy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
5. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.
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