ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 2 hours.
- B. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Massaging the client's legs may dislodge a clot and is contraindicated in this situation (choice A). Encouraging bed rest may increase the risk of DVT due to prolonged immobility (choice B). While administering anticoagulants is a common treatment for DVT, in this case, the question is about preventive measures, and using sequential compression devices is a non-pharmacological approach.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL.
- B. I will take my insulin if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
- C. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
- D. I will take my insulin only when I feel symptoms of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote airway clearance?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
- B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increased fluid intake helps thin secretions, making it easier for the client to clear their airways. Chest physiotherapy (Choice A) is more focused on mobilizing secretions and may not be suitable for all clients with pneumonia. Suctioning (Choice B) is indicated for clients who have excessive secretions that they cannot manage effectively themselves. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) is important for clients with pneumonia to maintain adequate oxygenation, but it does not directly promote airway clearance.
4. When should healthcare professionals perform hand hygiene?
- A. Before and after patient contact
- B. Before and after performing procedures
- C. After using the restroom
- D. After touching contaminated surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact to prevent the spread of infections. While choices B, C, and D are also important times to practice hand hygiene, they are not as crucial as before and after patient contact because patient contact poses a higher risk of transmitting infections.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
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