Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

2. What instruction should be included when teaching a client with asthma about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?

• A. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• B. Inhale rapidly while administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication while lying down.
• D. Hold the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth while inhaling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use ensures that the medication is properly mixed, allowing for an accurate dose with each administration. Inhaling slowly and deeply, not rapidly, helps the medication reach the lungs effectively. The medication should be administered while sitting or standing to facilitate proper lung expansion and airflow. Holding the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth can lead to medication loss; it should be placed directly in the mouth or used with a spacer to optimize delivery to the airways.

3. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Obtain a cardiology consult.
• B. Suction the client less frequently.
• C. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
• D. Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client's heart rate increases and becomes irregular during suctioning of an endotracheal tube, it indicates potential hypoxemia. Performing pre-oxygenation before suctioning helps prevent hypoxemia and subsequent dysrhythmias. This intervention ensures that the client has adequate oxygen reserves before the procedure, reducing the risk of complications related to suctioning.

4. In an emergency department, a healthcare provider is preparing to care for a client with multiple system trauma following a motor vehicle crash. What should be the priority focus of care?

• A. Airway protection
• B. Decreasing intracranial pressure
• C. Stabilizing cardiac arrhythmias
• D. Preventing musculoskeletal disability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with multiple system trauma, airway protection is the priority focus of care. Ensuring a patent airway is crucial for oxygenation and ventilation, which are essential for maintaining vital functions. Without a clear airway, the client's oxygenation and ventilation could be compromised, leading to severe consequences. While decreasing intracranial pressure, stabilizing cardiac arrhythmias, and preventing musculoskeletal disability are important aspects of care, ensuring airway protection takes precedence in this emergency situation.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

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