Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

2. During an admission assessment of a client with COPD and emphysema complaining of a frequent productive cough and shortness of breath, what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Respiratory alkalosis
• B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest
• C. Oxygen saturation level 96%
• D. Petechiae on chest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: COPD and emphysema are chronic respiratory conditions that can lead to changes in the shape of the chest. In clients with COPD, the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often increases, giving a barrel chest appearance. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is a common physical finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. The other options are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Respiratory alkalosis is not a common finding in these clients. An oxygen saturation level of 96% is within the normal range and does not specifically relate to COPD. Petechiae on the chest are not typically associated with COPD or emphysema.

3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

4. A client is 12 hours postoperative and has a chest tube to a disposable water-seal drainage system with suction. The healthcare provider should intervene for which of the following observations?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber
• B. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• C. Bloody drainage in the collection chamber
• D. Fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak, which can compromise the system's integrity and affect the client's respiratory status. The other options are expected findings in a client with a chest tube drainage system: constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber indicates proper suction function, bloody drainage in the collection chamber is expected in the immediate postoperative period, and fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber demonstrate normal drainage and lung re-expansion.

5. A client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air is to initiate oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation levels. Oxygen therapy is crucial to address hypoxemia promptly. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position can also aid in oxygenation, but administering oxygen takes precedence. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, it is a secondary action after ensuring the client's immediate need for oxygen is met. Documenting the finding in the client's medical record is necessary for continuity of care but is not the primary intervention when addressing hypoxemia.

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