Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

3. A college health nurse interprets the peak expiratory flow rate for a student who has asthma and finds that the student is in the yellow zone of his asthma action plan. The nurse should not base her actions on which of the following information?

• A. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
• B. The student's asthma is not well controlled.
• C. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
• D. The student needs to go to the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In an asthma action plan, the yellow zone indicates caution and signals a need to monitor symptoms closely. When a student is in the yellow zone, the appropriate action is to follow the prescribed steps, which typically include using a quick-relief inhaler and closely monitoring peak flow. Going to the hospital is usually reserved for severe asthma exacerbations in the red zone. Therefore, the information that the student needs to go to the hospital is not typically appropriate when the student is in the yellow zone.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

5. During an admission assessment of a client with COPD and emphysema complaining of a frequent productive cough and shortness of breath, what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Respiratory alkalosis
• B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest
• C. Oxygen saturation level 96%
• D. Petechiae on chest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: COPD and emphysema are chronic respiratory conditions that can lead to changes in the shape of the chest. In clients with COPD, the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often increases, giving a barrel chest appearance. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is a common physical finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. The other options are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Respiratory alkalosis is not a common finding in these clients. An oxygen saturation level of 96% is within the normal range and does not specifically relate to COPD. Petechiae on the chest are not typically associated with COPD or emphysema.

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