Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

2. A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action the nurse should take?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• B. Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medication.
• D. Draw blood for a complete blood cell (CBC) count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with burns, especially burns to the face and chest, the priority action for the nurse is to inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. Inhalation injuries can be life-threatening and may not be immediately apparent. Identifying these injuries early allows for prompt intervention and can significantly impact the client's outcomes. While other actions such as pain management and blood tests are important, assessing for inhalation injuries takes precedence due to its critical nature.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.

4. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?

• A. It means it is caused by another disease.
• B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
• C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
• D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.

5. A client with emphysema is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse not expect to assess in this client?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Barrel chest
• D. Clubbing of the fingers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by shortness of breath (dyspnea), a barrel-shaped chest due to hyperinflation of the lungs (barrel chest), and clubbing of the fingers (enlargement of fingertips). Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with emphysema. In emphysema, the primary focus is on respiratory complications rather than cardiac issues.

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