ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?
- A. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?
- B. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?
- C. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?
- D. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.
2. A client with a long history of smoking is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding is a common complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Decreased anteroposterior chest diameter
- B. Increased breath sounds
- C. Prolonged expiratory phase
- D. Increased chest expansion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In COPD, a prolonged expiratory phase is a typical finding caused by airway obstruction and air trapping. This results in difficulty expelling air from the lungs, leading to the characteristic prolonged exhalation in individuals with COPD.
3. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?
- A. Pain severity
- B. Wound drainage
- C. Tissue integrity
- D. Airway patency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.
4. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
- B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
- C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
- D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.
5. When teaching a group of clients about emergency care for a snake bite, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Raise the affected extremity above the level of the heart.
- B. Immobilize the affected extremity with a splint
- C. Apply ice to the bite area
- D. Apply a tourniquet to the affected extremity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of snake bites, it is essential to immobilize the affected extremity with a splint to prevent the spread of venom throughout the body. Raising the extremity above the heart level can promote venom spread, and applying ice or a tourniquet can worsen the condition. Immobilization helps reduce movement and slows the circulation of venom, aiding in the prevention of further complications.
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