ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?
- A. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?
- B. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?
- C. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?
- D. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.
2. When admitting a client with active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit, which of the following room assignments should the nurse make?
- A. A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment
- B. A room with another nonsurgical client
- C. A room in the ICU
- D. A room that is within view of the nurses' station
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When admitting a client with active tuberculosis, it is crucial to assign them to a room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment to prevent the spread of infectious particles to other patients and healthcare workers. This setup helps in reducing the risk of transmission within the healthcare facility. Placing the client in a room with another nonsurgical client or in the ICU may increase the chances of spreading the infection. Additionally, placing the client in a room within view of the nurses' station does not address the need for proper ventilation to minimize transmission of tuberculosis.
3. A client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.3 and a PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg. The client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). The given values of a pH of 7.3 and PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg indicate respiratory acidosis. Metabolic acidosis involves a primary decrease in bicarbonate levels with a compensatory decrease in PaCO2 to maintain balance. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis is marked by low PaCO2 and increased pH levels.
4. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Obtain a cardiology consult.
- B. Suction the client less frequently.
- C. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
- D. Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client's heart rate increases and becomes irregular during suctioning of an endotracheal tube, it indicates potential hypoxemia. Performing pre-oxygenation before suctioning helps prevent hypoxemia and subsequent dysrhythmias. This intervention ensures that the client has adequate oxygen reserves before the procedure, reducing the risk of complications related to suctioning.
5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?
- A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
- B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
- C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
- D. 1700 (5:00 PM)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.
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