Nursing Elites

1. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
• B. Daily physical therapy activities.
• C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

2. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

3. A client who had coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday needs care. What actions can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (SATA)

• A. administer antibiotics every 4 hrs
• B. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours.
• C. Ensure the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices.
• D. Have the client rate pain on a 0-to-10 scale and report to the nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse can delegate tasks such as assisting the client to get up in the chair or ambulate to the bathroom, applying TED hose or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Using the spirometer should be encouraged every hour the day after surgery by the nurse. Assessing pain using a 0-to-10 scale is a nursing assessment. However, if the client reports pain, the UAP should inform the nurse for a more detailed assessment.

4. A client is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client's blood pressure was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago and is now 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Call the Rapid Response Team.
• B. Document and continue to monitor.
• C. Notify the primary care provider.
• D. Repeat blood pressure measurement in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the significant drop in blood pressure indicates a potential emergency situation. The correct action is to call the Rapid Response Team (RRT) to ensure prompt intervention and prevent further deterioration that could lead to respiratory or cardiac arrest. It is crucial to act swiftly in response to such a critical change in vital signs to provide the client with the necessary care and support.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Serum calcium level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.

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