ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
- B. Daily physical therapy activities.
- C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.
2. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
- B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
- C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
- D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.
3. A client is being admitted to the surgical unit from the PACU following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Surgical dressing
- C. Temperature
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority assessment for a client being admitted to the surgical unit following a cholecystectomy is oxygen saturation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation, especially after surgery. Hypoxia can have serious consequences and needs to be promptly addressed. While assessing bowel sounds, surgical dressing, and temperature are important, oxygen saturation takes precedence in this situation.
4. A client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?
- A. Increase intake of caffeinated beverages.
- B. Engage in weight-bearing exercises regularly.
- C. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
- D. Take calcium supplements with iron.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Engaging in weight-bearing exercises is crucial for individuals with osteoporosis as it helps strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Weight-bearing exercises include activities like walking, jogging, dancing, and strength training. These exercises help improve bone density and overall bone health, making them an essential component of lifestyle modifications for individuals with osteoporosis.
5. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)
- A. Age
- B. Hypertension
- C. Obesity
- D. Smoking
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.
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