ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client with Addison's disease is being admitted for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administering a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone
- B. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing
- C. Collecting additional information from the client about his history of Addison's disease
- D. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client with Addison's disease undergoing surgery who takes hydrocortisone is to administer a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone. Acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) is a significant risk during surgery due to the stress placed on the body. Supplemental doses help prevent acute adrenal insufficiency and ensure the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing is important post-operatively but not the priority before surgery. Collecting additional information about the client's history of Addison's disease is relevant but not the priority action before surgery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action in this scenario.
2. A client is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Increase in HDL cholesterol
- C. Prevention of bipolar manic episodes
- D. Improved sexual function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated by a decrease in blood pressure. Lisinopril works by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Monitoring and achieving a decrease in blood pressure is a key outcome when managing hypertension with lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lisinopril is not intended to increase HDL cholesterol, prevent bipolar manic episodes, or improve sexual function. Therefore, the correct outcome indicating the therapeutic effect of lisinopril is a decrease in blood pressure.
3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect a dry cough.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.
4. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.
5. What should you monitor when administering Clopidogrel to a patient?
- A. Signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
- B. Bleeding during therapy
- C. CBC with differential and platelet count
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering Clopidogrel, it is crucial to monitor for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, bleeding during therapy, and changes in CBC with differential and platelet count. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare but serious condition associated with Clopidogrel use, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, fever, and renal dysfunction. Monitoring for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring for bleeding helps to assess the risk of hemorrhagic events, a known side effect of Clopidogrel. Additionally, regular monitoring of CBC with differential and platelet count is necessary to evaluate the drug's impact on blood cell counts and detect any abnormalities that may require intervention. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure patient safety and appropriate management during Clopidogrel therapy.
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