a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for omeprazole which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication before meals.' Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is most effective in reducing stomach acid production when taken before meals. This timing helps the medication work optimally by inhibiting acid secretion that occurs in response to food intake. Choice B ('Take this medication with food') is incorrect because Omeprazole should be taken before meals. Choice C ('Take this medication at bedtime') is incorrect as the optimal timing is before meals, not at bedtime. Choice D ('Take this medication with antacids') is incorrect because Omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as they can interfere with its absorption.

2. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina asks the nurse to explain possible side effects. What should NOT be included in client teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hyponatremia is not a common side effect associated with nitroglycerin use. Nitroglycerin typically causes side effects such as reflex tachycardia, dizziness, and hypotension due to its vasodilatory effects. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to educate the client about these potential side effects to promote understanding and appropriate management.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to administer eye drops is by instructing the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps in proper distribution and absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as pressing the inside corner of the eye is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect because applying eye drops directly on the cornea can cause irritation and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as wiping the eyes immediately after application can remove the medication and reduce its effectiveness.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

5. While teaching a client with a new prescription for Warfarin, which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, found in green leafy vegetables, not potassium. The client should avoid consuming large amounts of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy. Increasing potassium intake is not a concern related to Warfarin therapy, so this statement indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements indicating good understanding of Warfarin therapy. Avoiding large amounts of green leafy vegetables helps prevent fluctuations in vitamin K levels, taking medication consistently maintains therapeutic levels, and reporting any signs of bleeding is essential for monitoring and managing potential side effects of Warfarin.

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