Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Use an electric shaver to remove excess hair on the extremity.
• B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
• C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Instruct the client to keep the extremity still during the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. This medication may make you feel dizzy at first.
• B. You should avoid foods that are high in fat.
• C. Take the medication in the morning.
• D. You may experience a rapid heart rate while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause dizziness, especially when starting the medication. The nurse should inform the client to change positions slowly to avoid dizziness and falls.

4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

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