Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action the nurse should take?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• B. Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medication.
• D. Draw blood for a complete blood cell (CBC) count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with burns, especially burns to the face and chest, the priority action for the nurse is to inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. Inhalation injuries can be life-threatening and may not be immediately apparent. Identifying these injuries early allows for prompt intervention and can significantly impact the client's outcomes. While other actions such as pain management and blood tests are important, assessing for inhalation injuries takes precedence due to its critical nature.

2. When working as a professional nurse, what is the priority for a new nurse working on an inpatient medical-surgical unit with a preceptor?

• A. Attending to holistic client needs
• B. Ensuring client safety
• C. Avoiding medication errors
• D. Providing client-focused care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for a nurse working on an inpatient medical-surgical unit is to ensure client safety. This is crucial as errors in hospital care can lead to preventable deaths. While attending to holistic client needs and providing client-focused care are important aspects of nursing, ensuring client safety takes precedence to prevent harm and promote positive patient outcomes.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of seizures. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. The client is experiencing an aura.
• B. The client's antiseizure medication level is within the therapeutic range.
• C. The client has been seizure-free for 2 years.
• D. The client's seizure activity lasts longer than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate intervention as it can lead to status epilepticus, a medical emergency.

4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

5. A client with diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What should the nurse administer first?

• A. 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously
• B. 50 mL of 50% dextrose solution intravenously
• C. 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• D. 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client experiencing hypoglycemia is administering 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally. If the client is conscious and able to swallow, providing quick-acting carbohydrates helps raise blood glucose levels rapidly and effectively. This approach is preferred over other options like administering insulin, dextrose solution intravenously, or glucagon, which are not the initial interventions for hypoglycemia.

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