Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. "It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back."
• B. "I'll sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night."
• C. "I'll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night."
• D. "If I could lose about 50 pounds, I might stop having so many apneic episodes."

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Obtain a cardiology consult.
• B. Suction the client less frequently.
• C. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
• D. Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client's heart rate increases and becomes irregular during suctioning of an endotracheal tube, it indicates potential hypoxemia. Performing pre-oxygenation before suctioning helps prevent hypoxemia and subsequent dysrhythmias. This intervention ensures that the client has adequate oxygen reserves before the procedure, reducing the risk of complications related to suctioning.

4. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

• A. Pain severity
• B. Wound drainage
• C. Tissue integrity
• D. Airway patency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

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