Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

3. A client had an inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the client's cardiac rhythm as shown below. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assess the client's blood pressure and level of consciousness.
• B. Call the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Obtain a permit for an emergency temporary pacemaker insertion.
• D. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ECG strip shows sinus bradycardia, which is common in clients with an inferior wall MI. This rhythm can lead to decreased perfusion due to bradycardia and blocks. The most crucial initial action for the nurse is to assess the client's hemodynamic status, including blood pressure and level of consciousness. This assessment will help determine the immediate needs of the client. Calling the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team, obtaining a permit for a pacemaker insertion, or preparing to administer antidysrhythmic medication may be necessary based on the assessment findings, but the priority is to evaluate the client's current condition first.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

5. A client with diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What should the nurse administer first?

• A. 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously
• B. 50 mL of 50% dextrose solution intravenously
• C. 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• D. 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client experiencing hypoglycemia is administering 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally. If the client is conscious and able to swallow, providing quick-acting carbohydrates helps raise blood glucose levels rapidly and effectively. This approach is preferred over other options like administering insulin, dextrose solution intravenously, or glucagon, which are not the initial interventions for hypoglycemia.

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