ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?
- A. Fremitus
- B. Hyperresonance
- C. Dullness on percussion
- D. Decreased tactile fremitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.
2. A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected anaphylactic reaction following a CT scan with contrast media. For which of the following client findings should the nurse intervene first?
- A. Urticaria
- B. Stridor
- C. Vomiting
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
3. When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?
- A. Administer prescribed antibiotics on time.
- B. Encourage the client to use a tissue when coughing.
- C. Place the client in a private room.
- D. Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.
4. When prioritizing client care after receiving change-of-shift report, which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
- A. A client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport
- B. A client who has a prescription for discharge
- C. A client who received oral pain medication 30 minutes ago
- D. A client who told an assistive personnel he is short of breath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses being short of breath, it may indicate a serious condition requiring immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. This client should be seen first to assess the severity of the situation and initiate appropriate interventions. The other options, such as awaiting transport for an x-ray, having a prescription for discharge, or receiving oral pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not present immediate life-threatening concerns compared to a client experiencing shortness of breath.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
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