ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?
- A. Fremitus
- B. Hyperresonance
- C. Dullness on percussion
- D. Decreased tactile fremitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.
2. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Raise the foot of the bed to a 90� angle
- B. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound
- C. Prepare to insert a central line
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.
3. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction (MI). What is the priority assessment for this client?
- A. Monitoring urine output
- B. Checking blood glucose levels
- C. Assessing for chest pain
- D. Monitoring electrolyte levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing for chest pain is crucial in post-MI clients as it can indicate complications such as reinfarction or ischemia.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back."
- B. "I'll sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night."
- C. "I'll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night."
- D. "If I could lose about 50 pounds, I might stop having so many apneic episodes."
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
- A. Carvedilol
- B. Fluticasone
- C. Captopril
- D. Isosorbide dinitrate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.
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