Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

2. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.

3. A client with a tracheostomy experienced a coughing spell during a meal that was being fed by an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What action by the nurse takes priority?

• A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• B. Assign a different UAP to the client.
• C. Report the UAP to the manager.
• D. Request thicker liquids for meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's lung sounds to check for signs of aspiration, which can compromise the client's oxygenation. This is crucial to ensure the client's immediate safety and respiratory status. Once the client has been assessed, the nurse can then consider consulting with the registered dietitian regarding appropriate thickened liquids for future meals. Assigning a different UAP or reporting the UAP to the manager may be necessary steps but not the immediate priority in this situation.

4. A client is postoperative following an intermaxillary fixation due to multiple facial fractures. Which type of equipment should be at the client's bedside?

• A. Wire cutters
• B. NG tube
• C. Urinary catheter tray
• D. IV infusion pump

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who has undergone intermaxillary fixation for facial fractures, wire cutters are essential equipment to have at the bedside in case of emergencies such as airway compromise. These wire cutters allow prompt removal of the wires securing the jaw if needed to ensure adequate airway patency. NG tube, urinary catheter tray, and IV infusion pump are important pieces of equipment in various clinical scenarios but are not specifically required for managing intermaxillary fixation postoperatively.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6° C (97.8° F) to 37° C (98.6° F)
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

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