Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?

• A. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count: 82,000/µL
• C. RBC count: 4.8 x 10^6/µL
• D. WBC count: 8.7 x 10^3/µL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.

3. When caring for a client with acute renal failure, which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure, monitoring serum potassium is crucial because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalemia, which can result in life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated potassium levels need close monitoring and prompt interventions to prevent serious complications.

4. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
• B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
• D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.

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