ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. Fractured tibia.
- C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
- D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina. The client reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes
- B. Administer aspirin 325 mg
- C. Encourage the client to use deep breathing exercises
- D. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client with a history of angina reports chest pain is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain associated with angina. Aspirin is often given during a suspected heart attack, not for immediate relief of angina. Deep breathing exercises may be beneficial for anxiety or respiratory conditions but are not the first-line intervention for angina. Oxygen therapy is not the initial treatment for angina unless the client is hypoxic.
3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Check urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.
4. A client with osteoporosis should be encouraged to perform which of the following interventions as part of the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to increase calcium intake.
- B. Apply heat to the affected joints to reduce stiffness.
- C. Encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss.
- D. Limit fluid intake to prevent swelling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Weight-bearing exercises help to strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not the priority intervention for preventing bone loss in osteoporosis. Applying heat to affected joints (Choice B) may help with stiffness but does not address the underlying bone loss in osteoporosis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is not relevant to managing osteoporosis and preventing bone loss.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Increased hoarseness
- B. Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Urinary output of 60 mL in 2 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL.' A low serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, which is a potential complication of thyroidectomy that can lead to life-threatening consequences, such as tetany or laryngospasm. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the provider for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments following a thyroidectomy but are not as critical as detecting and addressing hypocalcemia, which can have serious implications for the client's health.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access