ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- B. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
- C. I will take this medication at the same time each day.
- D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.
2. A client in active labor has ruptured membranes. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a fetal heart rate monitor.
- B. Initiate fundal massage.
- C. Administer oxytocin IV.
- D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client in active labor has ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This is crucial for continuous monitoring of the baby's heart rate and ensuring fetal well-being. Initiating fundal massage may be indicated for uterine atony after delivery, not for ruptured membranes during labor. Administering oxytocin IV could be appropriate in some cases to augment labor, but it is not the immediate priority after ruptured membranes. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary solely based on ruptured membranes; it may be indicated for specific situations like epidural anesthesia where the client cannot void.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
- C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer magnesium sulfate.
- B. Place the client in the left lateral position.
- C. Monitor intake and output.
- D. Provide a low-sodium diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer aspirin for discomfort
- B. Check the client's temperature every 4 hr
- C. Monitor the client's urine output
- D. Check for stool in the client's colostomy bag every 2 hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.
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