Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
• B. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
• C. I will take this medication at the same time each day.
• D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Check gastric residual every 2 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

3. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

• A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide wound debridement
• C. Change the dressing daily
• D. Apply moist gauze to the ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following sites should the healthcare provider select?

• A. Deltoid
• B. Vastus lateralis
• C. Rectus femoris
• D. Dorsogluteal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its large muscle mass and low risk of complications. The deltoid, although a common site for vaccines, has a smaller muscle mass and may not be suitable for all types of medications. The rectus femoris is a muscle in the thigh that is more commonly used for intramuscular injections in infants. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.

5. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. Fractured tibia.
• C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
• D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

Similar Questions