ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent blood clots.
- B. I will call my provider if I experience swelling in my hands.
- C. I should increase my calcium intake to prevent seizures.
- D. I will restrict my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Tachycardia (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Dry mouth (choice B) is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia but may be seen in hyperglycemia. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia and is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
3. A client with Raynaud's disease is being cared for by a nurse. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
- B. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- C. Provide information about stress management.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroid twice a day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress can trigger Raynaud's episodes, so managing stress can help reduce the frequency and severity of the condition. Maintaining a warm temperature in the client's room (Choice A) is important to prevent vasoconstriction and worsening of symptoms. Administering epinephrine (Choice B) is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease. Giving glucocorticoid steroids (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for Raynaud's disease and is not typically prescribed for this condition.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Gastric pH of 2.5.
- B. Bowel sounds every 4 hours.
- C. Diarrhea of 250 mL in 24 hours.
- D. Gastric residual of 150 mL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A gastric residual of 150 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying and should be reported to the provider.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
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