Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring renal function in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor BUN and creatinine levels
• B. Check blood glucose levels
• C. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• D. Monitor liver enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine levels in a patient with chronic kidney disease. These tests provide crucial information about renal function. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice B) is important for monitoring diabetes, not renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (Choice C) helps assess anemia, not specifically renal function. Monitoring liver enzymes (Choice D) is relevant for assessing liver function, not renal function.

2. How should fluid balance be monitored in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method. This is because diuretics primarily affect fluid levels in the body, leading to changes in weight due to fluid loss. While monitoring intake and output, checking for edema, and monitoring blood pressure are important aspects of patient care, they do not provide as direct and accurate information about fluid balance as daily weight monitoring specifically in patients on diuretics.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
• B. The client develops hiccups.
• C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
• D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Chicken breast
• B. Pasta
• C. Spinach
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to your upper arm.
• B. You should remove the patch before showering.
• C. Rotate the patch site each time you apply it.
• D. Apply the patch to your lower abdomen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.

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