Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring renal function in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor BUN and creatinine levels
• B. Check blood glucose levels
• C. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• D. Monitor liver enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine levels in a patient with chronic kidney disease. These tests provide crucial information about renal function. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice B) is important for monitoring diabetes, not renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (Choice C) helps assess anemia, not specifically renal function. Monitoring liver enzymes (Choice D) is relevant for assessing liver function, not renal function.

2. What is the appropriate diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low protein diet
• B. High protein diet
• C. Low sodium diet
• D. Low potassium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low protein diet is the appropriate choice for a patient with chronic kidney disease because it helps to reduce the buildup of waste products in the body, which the kidneys may struggle to filter out. High protein diets can put extra strain on the kidneys by increasing the workload to eliminate the byproducts of protein metabolism. While low sodium and low potassium diets can also be important for managing certain aspects of kidney disease, the primary focus should be on controlling protein intake to lessen the burden on the kidneys.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same location each time.
• B. Rotate the patch site daily to avoid skin irritation.
• C. Apply the patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime.
• D. Keep the patch on at all times, even during a bath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the nitroglycerin transdermal patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime. This schedule helps prevent tolerance to the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be rotated to different sites to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect as daily rotation is recommended, not daily application to the same site. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should be removed during a bath as it may decrease the efficacy of the medication.

4. When preparing education materials for a client, what technique should be used to make the information accessible?

• A. Emphasize important information using bold lettering.
• B. Use a 7th-grade reading level.
• C. Avoid using cartoons in the material.
• D. Use words with three or four syllables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 7th-grade reading level. This technique ensures that the information provided is accessible and easily understandable for most clients. Using simple language helps to avoid confusion and ensures that the message is conveyed clearly. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not improve overall accessibility. Avoiding cartoons in the material (Choice C) is not directly related to making information accessible. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can complicate the material and hinder understanding, making it less accessible.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased muscle strength.
• C. Diarrhea.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

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