Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Apical pulse 58/min
• C. Digoxin level 1 ng/ml
• D. Constipation for 2 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Pickles
• B. Fresh vegetables
• C. Canned soup
• D. Smoked salmon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fresh vegetables are an excellent choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium. Pickles, canned soup, and smoked salmon are high in sodium and should be avoided by clients following a low-sodium diet. Pickles are pickled in a brine solution high in sodium, canned soup usually contains added salt for preservation, and smoked salmon is a processed food that typically has a high sodium content.

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