ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
2. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
- A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
- B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
- D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 92%
- B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
- C. Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter
- D. Productive cough with green sputum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A productive cough with green sputum can indicate a bacterial infection, which is a concern for clients with COPD. Reporting this finding to the provider is important for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning in the context of COPD management. An oxygen saturation of 92% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients, pursed-lip breathing is a helpful technique for managing breathing difficulties in COPD, and an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter is a common finding in clients with COPD due to chronic air trapping.
5. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- D. This medication can increase your blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent diuresis at night. Option C is not necessary as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food. Option D is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is used to lower blood pressure, not increase it.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access