ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased bilirubin levels
- B. Decreased albumin levels
- C. Increased prothrombin time
- D. Decreased serum glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Increased bilirubin levels are expected in clients with cirrhosis due to impaired liver function. Elevated bilirubin levels are commonly seen in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to process bilirubin is compromised. Decreased albumin levels and increased prothrombin time are also associated with cirrhosis, but the most specific finding related to liver dysfunction among the choices provided is increased bilirubin levels. Decreased serum glucose levels are not typically associated with cirrhosis.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate 88/min
- C. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 136 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.
4. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?
- A. Monitor INR levels
- B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.
5. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover.
- B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet.
- C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.
- D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kosher dietary laws require the separation of meat and dairy products. Choice A is incorrect because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in Jewish dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not considered kosher and is not consumed in Jewish dietary practices. Choice D is incorrect as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah.
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