a nurse in a providers office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients the nurse should identify that which of the following sexually
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended as it can cause bruising or discomfort. Injecting the medication into the deltoid muscle is also incorrect because enoxaparin should be given in areas of adipose tissue, such as the abdomen, to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness.

3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

4. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a wound infection and is receiving gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to detect an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creatinine. Gentamicin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring creatinine levels helps the nurse detect any potential kidney damage. Choice B, Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), is not typically affected by gentamicin. Choice C, White blood cell count, is not directly related to gentamicin adverse effects. Choice D, Serum glucose, is not specifically monitored for gentamicin adverse effects.

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