ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of amoxicillin to a client who has an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Verify the client's allergy status before administering the medication.
- C. Ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic.
- D. Check the client's skin for any rashes before administering the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic instead of administering amoxicillin to a client with a known penicillin allergy. Choice A is incorrect because administering amoxicillin to a client with a penicillin allergy can lead to an allergic reaction. Choice B is not the best option as simply verifying the client's allergy status does not address the potential harm of giving amoxicillin. Choice D is irrelevant as checking the client's skin for rashes does not address the issue of administering a potentially harmful medication. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to request a different antibiotic from the provider to ensure the safety of the client.
2. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will place the eye drops in the center of my eye.
- B. I will place pressure on the corner of my eye after using the drops.
- C. I should expect my tears to turn red after using the drops.
- D. I should expect the drops to appear cloudy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.
3. A client with a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience chest pain.
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levothyroxine should be taken every morning before breakfast to enhance absorption and maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels. Option A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because chest pain is not a common side effect of levothyroxine and stopping the medication abruptly can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at bedtime may result in decreased absorption due to interactions with food and other medications.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Sedation
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, commonly causes sedation as an adverse effect. Weight gain (choice A) is a potential side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with chlorpromazine. Dry mouth (choice B) is a common anticholinergic side effect of many medications but is not a prominent adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of chlorpromazine.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.
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