Nursing Elites

1. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

2. During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Polyuria
• D. Report of headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.

3. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Acarbose
• B. Repaglinide
• C. Glyburide
• D. Glipizide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

4. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. Following an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, indicating a:

• A. Incomplete miscarriage
• B. Missed miscarriage
• C. Inevitable miscarriage
• D. Complete miscarriage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A missed miscarriage, also known as a silent or delayed miscarriage, occurs when the embryo or fetus has died, but no bleeding or contractions have occurred to expel it from the uterus. In this scenario, the client's experiencing slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past two weeks indicates a missed miscarriage as the fetus has died, but the body has not recognized the loss or expelled the products of conception.

5. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding. The tentative diagnosis is inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• B. Offer option to view products of conception
• C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering the client the option to view products of conception after an inevitable abortion can provide closure and support the grieving process. It allows the client to have a visual confirmation of the pregnancy loss, which can aid in emotional healing. Administering oxygen is not a priority in this scenario as there is no indication of respiratory distress. Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods is not directly related to managing an inevitable abortion. Bed rest may be recommended, but offering the option to view products of conception is a more appropriate intervention at this time.

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