Nursing Elites

1. A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?

• A. Validate the client's feelings by saying, 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn’t go as planned.'
• B. Assure the client by stating, 'At least you know you have a healthy baby.'
• C. Encourage the client by suggesting, 'Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery.'
• D. Provide information by saying, 'You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally.'

Correct answer: A: 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn’t go as planned.'

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.

2. A newborn's mother is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which of the following should the infant receive?

• A. Hepatitis B immune globulin at 1 week followed by hepatitis B vaccine monthly for 6 months
• B. Hepatitis B vaccine monthly until the newborn tests negative for the hepatitis B surface antigen
• C. Hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hr of birth
• D. Hepatitis B vaccine at 24 hr followed by hepatitis B immune globulin every 12 hr for 3 days

Correct answer: Hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hr of birth

Rationale: In the scenario where a newborn's mother is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen, the infant should receive both hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. This is crucial to provide passive and active immunity against the Hepatitis B virus. Hepatitis B immune globulin provides immediate protection by giving passive immunity, while the vaccine stimulates active immunity in the infant. Administering both within 12 hours of birth is important to prevent vertical transmission of the virus.

3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: This could result in profound bleeding.

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

4. A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?

• A. The client is carrying more than one fetus
• B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid
• C. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present
• D. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor

Correct answer: C: An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present

Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

5. A nurse in the antepartum unit is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following comp

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: Abruptio placentae

Rationale:

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