Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a client who has a radial artery catheter. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?

• A. . Amount of pressure in fluid container
• B. Date of catheter tubing change
• C. Percent of heparin in infusion container
• D. . Presence of an ulnar pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
• B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
• C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
• D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.

3. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

4. Which negative ion is most abundant in blood plasma?

• A. Bicarbonate
• B. Chloride
• C. Hydroxide
• D. Phosphate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chloride (Cl-) is the most abundant anion in blood plasma. It plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic balance and acid-base homeostasis. Bicarbonate (Choice A) is important for buffering acids in the body but is not the most abundant negative ion in blood plasma. Hydroxide (Choice C) is not typically found in high concentrations in blood plasma. Phosphate (Choice D) is an important anion in the body but is not as abundant as chloride in blood plasma.

5. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patient's skin turgor?

• A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
• B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy.
• C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
• D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration is not common among healthy older adults. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration leads to inelastic skin, not sponginess. Choice D is incorrect as skin turgor assessment can be done in patients of any age, including those over 70.

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