Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is hospitalized with a possible electrolyte imbalance is disoriented and weak, has an irregular pulse, and takes hydrochlorothiazide. He most likely suffers from:

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is displaying symptoms of hypokalemia, including weakness, disorientation, irregular pulse, which can lead to cardiac disturbances. Hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-wasting diuretic that can cause hypokalemia if not accompanied by potassium replacement therapy. Hypernatremia (choice A) is characterized by high sodium levels, not potassium. Hyponatremia (choice B) is low sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is high potassium levels, which is not consistent with the symptoms described in the question.

2. A home care nurse prepares to administer intravenous medication to a client. The nurse assesses the site and reviews the clients chart prior to administering the medication: Client: Thomas Jackson DOB: 5/3/1936 Gender: Male January 23 (Today): Right uppe

• A. Notify the health care provider
• B. . Administer the prescribed medication.
• C. Discontinue the PICC
• D. Switch the medication to the oral route

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

3. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

4. Under normal circumstances, the kidneys provide the greatest means of water loss. Which organ provides the second greatest means of water loss?

• A. Skin
• B. Lungs
• C. Intestines
• D. Muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Skin. After the kidneys, the skin is the second largest route of water loss through perspiration. Choice B, Lungs, is incorrect as the lungs primarily exchange gases and do not play a significant role in water loss. Choice C, Intestines, is also incorrect as water loss through the intestines is minimal since most water is reabsorbed during digestion. Choice D, Muscles, is incorrect as muscles are not a major source of water loss in the body.

5. You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?

• A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation
• B. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation
• D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO2 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the arterial blood gas results is metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the primary acid-base disturbance and the compensatory response seen in the given results.

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