Nursing Elites

1. How does tamsulosin (Flomax) primarily benefit male patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamsulosin works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, which helps improve urinary flow in patients with BPH. This relaxation reduces the symptoms associated with BPH, such as urinary hesitancy, urgency, and frequency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate gland. Choice C is incorrect as while tamsulosin does improve urine flow, its primary mechanism of action is through muscle relaxation rather than directly relieving obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function; its main therapeutic effect is targeted towards urinary symptoms related to BPH.

2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

• A. They improve treatment adherence.
• B. They reduce the duration of illness.
• C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
• D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

3. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?

• A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
• B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
• C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
• D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.

4. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

5. A 5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections. A possible cause of this condition is:

• A. Hypergammaglobulinemia
• B. Increased maternal IgG
• C. Immune insufficiency
• D. Decreased maternal antibody breakdown, resulting in hyposensitivity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immune insufficiency is a possible cause of recurring respiratory infections in a 5-month-old child. In this scenario, the child's immune system may not be functioning optimally, leading to a susceptibility to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypergammaglobulinemia refers to high levels of gamma globulins in the blood and is not typically associated with recurring respiratory infections in this context. Increased maternal IgG would provide passive immunity to the child, offering some protection against infections. Decreased maternal antibody breakdown leading to hyposensitivity is not a common cause of recurring respiratory infections in a 5-month-old child.

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