ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. A 55-year-old man presents with a history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He reports recent onset of a productive cough and hemoptysis. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Lung cancer
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. The symptoms described - fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, productive cough, and hemoptysis - are classic manifestations of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, commonly affecting the lungs but can also involve other organs. **Choice A: Lung cancer** typically presents with symptoms like persistent cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case due to the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice B: Pneumonia** can present with productive cough, fever, and chest pain, but it is less likely given the chronicity of symptoms and the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice D: Pulmonary embolism** usually presents with sudden onset shortness of breath, chest pain, and can be associated with risk factors like recent surgery or immobility.
2. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
- A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
- B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
- C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
- D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.
3. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
4. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?
- A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
- B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
- C. Improvement in erectile function
- D. Relief of pain associated with BPH
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.
5. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?
- A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
- B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
- C. Changes in speech and reasoning
- D. Increased intracranial pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.
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