Nursing Elites

1. A 55-year-old man presents with a history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He reports recent onset of a productive cough and hemoptysis. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Lung cancer
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. The symptoms described - fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, productive cough, and hemoptysis - are classic manifestations of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, commonly affecting the lungs but can also involve other organs. **Choice A: Lung cancer** typically presents with symptoms like persistent cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case due to the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice B: Pneumonia** can present with productive cough, fever, and chest pain, but it is less likely given the chronicity of symptoms and the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice D: Pulmonary embolism** usually presents with sudden onset shortness of breath, chest pain, and can be associated with risk factors like recent surgery or immobility.

2. What condition is a result of Polycythemia Vera, which involves excess red blood cells?

• A. Tissue ischemia & necrosis
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Low blood pressure & heart rate
• D. Increased numbers of infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polycythemia Vera, characterized by excess red blood cells, can cause tissue ischemia and necrosis due to the increased blood viscosity. This condition restricts blood flow, leading to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues and subsequent tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of Polycythemia Vera.

3. What important instruction should the nurse provide about taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for a patient with endometriosis?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Discontinue medroxyprogesterone if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This consistency is crucial for achieving therapeutic outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day, regardless of food intake. Choice C is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily for the prescribed duration.

4. A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Spoon-shaped nails
• C. Gait problems
• D. Petechiae

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spoon-shaped nails. In iron deficiency anemia, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are a common symptom due to changes in the nail bed. This condition is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome. While fatigue and weakness are common in iron deficiency anemia, hyperactivity (choice A) is not typically associated with this condition. Gait problems (choice C) and petechiae (choice D) are more commonly seen in other medical conditions and are not characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about the risks associated with this therapy?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride has no impact on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride, a type of androgen therapy, has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer. It works by shrinking the prostate gland, which can help lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, while it may reduce the risk, regular screening is still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride does have an impact on reducing the risk of prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does have an effect on reducing the risk of prostate cancer.

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