ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
- A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
- B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
- C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
- D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.
2. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Choice A is incorrect because androgen therapy usually does not significantly increase the risk of liver dysfunction. Choice C is incorrect as androgen therapy does not increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it is sometimes used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Choice D is also incorrect as androgen therapy is more likely to improve bone density and reduce the risk of fractures.
3. A patient's anemia is described as having erythrocytes that demonstrate anisocytosis. The nurse would recognize the erythrocytes as:
- A. Pale in color
- B. Present in various sizes
- C. Able to assume various shapes
- D. Live only a few days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Present in various sizes.' Anisocytosis refers to erythrocytes that are present in various sizes, indicating an abnormality in the uniformity of red blood cell size. Choice A is incorrect because anisocytosis does not refer to the color of erythrocytes. Choice C is incorrect as anisocytosis does not involve the shape of erythrocytes. Choice D is incorrect as anisocytosis does not determine the lifespan of erythrocytes.
4. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?
- A. Clarithromycin
- B. Pyrazinamide
- C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
- D. Azithromycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.
5. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?
- A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
- B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
- C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
- D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.
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