a male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.

2. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

3. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

4. What is the primary cause of angina?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstruction of the coronary arteries. Angina is primarily caused by a reduced blood flow to the heart due to blockages or narrowing in the coronary arteries. Choice A is incorrect because while increased oxygen demand can contribute to angina symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as angina is not caused by a lack of oxygen in the lungs. Choice D is also incorrect as angina is not related to decreased blood supply to the liver.

5. A patient is starting on oral contraceptives. What should the nurse emphasize about the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary emphasis of consistent timing is on hormone levels and effectiveness, not on reducing breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because while consistent absorption is a factor, the main focus is on maintaining stable hormone levels. Choice D is incorrect as missing doses can significantly impact contraceptive efficacy.

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