ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.
2. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of testosterone gel for the treatment of hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel after showering, and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- B. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
- C. Apply the gel before bedtime to enhance absorption during sleep.
- D. Apply the gel to the face and neck for improved results.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply testosterone gel after showering and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This helps prevent the transfer of the gel to others and ensures proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because the gel should not be applied to the genitals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to applying the gel before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as the gel should not be applied to the face and neck for the treatment of hypogonadism.
3. A patient's anemia is described as having erythrocytes that demonstrate anisocytosis. The nurse would recognize the erythrocytes as:
- A. Pale in color
- B. Present in various sizes
- C. Able to assume various shapes
- D. Live only a few days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Present in various sizes.' Anisocytosis refers to erythrocytes that are present in various sizes, indicating an abnormality in the uniformity of red blood cell size. Choice A is incorrect because anisocytosis does not refer to the color of erythrocytes. Choice C is incorrect as anisocytosis does not involve the shape of erythrocytes. Choice D is incorrect as anisocytosis does not determine the lifespan of erythrocytes.
4. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within
- A. 48 hours.
- B. a week to 10 days.
- C. 2 to 3 weeks.
- D. 4 to 6 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.
5. Which of the following is a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction?
- A. Infection
- B. Postoperative adhesions
- C. Tumors
- D. Foreign body
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative adhesions are a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction. Adhesions can form after abdominal surgery, causing bands of scar tissue that may twist or pull the intestines, leading to obstruction. This is a more common cause compared to infection, tumors, or foreign bodies. Infection may lead to inflammation but is not a typical cause of mechanical obstruction. Tumors and foreign bodies can cause blockages but are less common than postoperative adhesions.
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