what is the pathophysiology of type i diabetes
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What causes type I diabetes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. While planning care for an elderly patient, the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As individuals age, their immune function tends to decrease, making them more susceptible to infections and diseases. Additionally, increased age is associated with higher levels of circulating autoantibodies, which can lead to autoimmune conditions. Choice A is incorrect as aging is not typically associated with increased T cell function. Choice C is also incorrect as aging does not necessarily result in increased production of antibodies. Therefore, the correct answers are B (Decreased immune function) and D (Increased levels of circulating autoantibodies).

3. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wheezing and dyspnea are typical symptoms of asthma. Wheezing refers to a high-pitched whistling sound while breathing, and dyspnea is shortness of breath. These symptoms are classic signs of airway obstruction and inflammation seen in asthma. Choice A is incorrect as chest pain is not a typical symptom of asthma, though coughing can occur. Choice B is incorrect as diarrhea is not associated with asthma, while wheezing is a common symptom. Choice D is incorrect as tachypnea (rapid breathing) can occur in asthma, but constipation is not a typical symptom.

4. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).

5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

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