Nursing Elites

1. What causes type I diabetes?

• A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
• B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
• C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
• D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

• A. B cell deficiency
• B. T cell deficiency
• C. Combined immunodeficiency
• D. Complement deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.

4. What signs and symptoms most likely prompted this patient to initially seek care?

• A. Malaise and fatigue
• B. Severe diarrhea
• C. Intermittent fever
• D. Dizziness and confusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe diarrhea. A patient who has recently returned from a trip to Nepal with a nongovernmental organization and is seeking care for amebiasis would most likely have been prompted by the symptom of severe diarrhea. Amebiasis is an infection caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water sources in developing countries like Nepal. The hallmark symptom of amebiasis is dysentery, which is characterized by severe diarrhea with blood or mucus in the stool. Malaise and fatigue (choice A) are nonspecific symptoms that may accompany many illnesses and are not specific to amebiasis. Intermittent fever (choice C) is not a typical presenting symptom of amebiasis, which primarily manifests with gastrointestinal symptoms. Dizziness and confusion (choice D) are also not typical symptoms associated with amebiasis.

5. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
• B. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
• C. Administer analgesics for pain management.
• D. Initiate passive range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

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