Nursing Elites

1. A female client with bone metastases secondary to lung cancer is admitted for palliative radiation treatment and pain control. The client is currently experiencing pain that she rates at 9 out of 10. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?

• A. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation
• B. Initiating neurostimulation
• C. Heat therapy
• D. Relaxation and distraction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing high pain levels, rated at 9 out of 10. Relaxation and distraction techniques are effective nonpharmacologic interventions for managing pain. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation (Choice A) can also be beneficial; however, in this acute situation of severe pain, relaxation and distraction techniques are more likely to provide immediate relief. Initiating neurostimulation (Choice B) and heat therapy (Choice C) may not be suitable for immediate pain relief in this scenario and are not as commonly used for managing high pain levels in palliative care settings.

2. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:

• A. Malnutrition
• B. Free radicals
• C. Ischemia
• D. Chemical toxicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.

3. When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis, what important instruction should the nurse provide about taking this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals.
• C. Discontinuing medroxyprogesterone should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily rather than weekly for the treatment of endometriosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate for endometriosis, it is essential to maintain consistent hormone levels by taking the medication at the same time each day. This consistency helps optimize the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals, not necessarily with food. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful and may not address side effects appropriately. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily to manage endometriosis symptoms, not weekly, to ensure continuous therapy and symptom control.

4. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important contraindication should the nurse emphasize during patient education?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. History of hypertension
• C. History of peptic ulcer disease
• D. Use of antihypertensive medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use. While a history of hypertension or peptic ulcer disease may require caution, they are not absolute contraindications like the concomitant use of nitrates.

5. Why does multiple sclerosis manifest as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body?

• A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
• B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
• C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
• D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system mistakenly attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This results in the formation of lesions that can occur in different parts of the central nervous system, leading to varied symptoms depending on the location of the damage. Choice A is the correct answer because it accurately describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe mechanisms or locations that are not associated with the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis.

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