Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a suspected aortic dissection. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
• C. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain blood pressure.
• D. Monitor the client's urine output closely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening emergency that often necessitates immediate surgical intervention to prevent rupture and further complications. Administering antihypertensive medications (choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority over surgical intervention. While maintaining blood pressure with intravenous fluids (choice C) is important, the urgent need for surgery takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is essential for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this critical situation.

2. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

3. In a 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reporting increasing shortness of breath, wheezing, and cough, which finding would indicate a potential exacerbation of his COPD?

• A. Increased wheezing
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Improved exercise tolerance
• D. Decreased sputum production

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased wheezing. In COPD exacerbations, there is a worsening of symptoms such as increased wheezing due to airway inflammation and narrowing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate would not be expected in COPD exacerbation as it is usually a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygenation. Improved exercise tolerance is not a typical finding in exacerbations but rather a sign of improvement. Decreased sputum production is also not indicative of exacerbation, as exacerbations are often associated with increased sputum production.

4. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?

• A. An autoimmune disorder
• B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity
• C. An increase in intracranial pressure
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.

5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?

• A. Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.
• B. Your child is likely to benefit from physical therapy and exercise.
• C. This condition can be cured with early intervention and treatment.
• D. The disease is caused by inflammation in the muscles, which leads to weakness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.

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