Nursing Elites

1. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?

• A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
• B. To prevent osteoporosis
• C. To increase calcium absorption
• D. To maintain bone strength

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.

2. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?

• A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
• B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
• C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
• D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.

3. What condition is a result of Polycythemia Vera, which involves excess red blood cells?

• A. Tissue ischemia & necrosis
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Low blood pressure & heart rate
• D. Increased numbers of infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polycythemia Vera, characterized by excess red blood cells, can cause tissue ischemia and necrosis due to the increased blood viscosity. This condition restricts blood flow, leading to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues and subsequent tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of Polycythemia Vera.

4. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

• A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
• B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
• C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
• D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.

5. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and menopausal symptoms, or causing weight gain and fluid retention.

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