ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?
- A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
- B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
- C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
2. A client asks a nurse about the cause of Parkinson's disease. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a lack of dopamine in the brain, which affects movement.
- B. Parkinson's disease is caused by an excess of acetylcholine in the brain, leading to tremors and rigidity.
- C. Parkinson's disease is caused by an autoimmune response that attacks the nervous system.
- D. Parkinson's disease is caused by a bacterial infection that needs to be treated with antibiotics.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, which results in the characteristic motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Choice B is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by an excess of acetylcholine. Choice C is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not an autoimmune disorder. Choice D is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by a bacterial infection and cannot be treated with antibiotics.
3. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?
- A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
- B. ALT and AST
- C. Urine culture and sensitivity
- D. Erythrocyte count and differential
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.
4. In which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur?
- A. A 50-year-old woman who is a bodybuilder
- B. A 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese
- C. A 10-year-old child who is thin
- D. A 30-year-old with multiple sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration is more likely to occur in a 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese due to the increased risk of conditions like diabetes and heart disease that can lead to fluid imbalances. Being morbidly obese can also strain the body's systems, increasing the need for water. The other choices are less likely to experience dehydration as a primary concern. While being a bodybuilder may require strict hydration practices, dehydration is more prevalent in individuals with conditions like obesity.
5. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the use of this medication?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Taking it at different times can lead to hormonal fluctuations and reduced medication efficacy. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice B is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management, not automatically leading to discontinuation of the medication.
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