a patient has been prescribed raloxifene evista for the prevention of osteoporosis what effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

2. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain and tissue damage. Compartment syndrome occurs due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments, leading to pain and tissue damage. Hemorrhage (choice A) is not a typical complication of compartment syndrome. Increased limb function (choice C) is not a complication but rather a potential improvement if the condition is managed appropriately. Chronic kidney disease (choice D) is unrelated to compartment syndrome.

3. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.

4. A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.

5. If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the nurse will observe which response during neuro testing, where the nurse asks the client to close his eyes and then proceeds to touch corresponding parts of the body on each side simultaneously with two sharp points?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced points is impaired. This results in the client not being able to differentiate between the two points when touched simultaneously. Choice B is incorrect because the client feeling only one point suggests an intact dorsal column function. Choice C is incorrect as accurately identifying both points indicates normal discrimination ability. Choice D is incorrect as reporting no sensation does not correspond to the specific impairment related to dorsal column dysfunction.

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