ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?
- A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
- B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
- C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
2. In the ED, a homeless client is brought in with severe hypothermia. The police officers also state that they found a 'bottle of booze' on the sidewalk next to him. This puts the nurse on high alert since alcohol contributes to hypothermia by:
- A. interfering with the appetite center in the brain, causing the person to not respond to hunger cues.
- B. causing the person to have less insulation from body fat.
- C. dulling mental awareness, impairing judgment to seek shelter.
- D. increasing the basal metabolic rate, leading to faster depletion of ATP.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol impairs judgment and dulls mental awareness, making a person less likely to seek shelter when experiencing hypothermia. This impaired judgment can lead to risky behaviors that exacerbate the effects of cold exposure. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol does not directly interfere with the appetite center in the brain to the extent described. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol consumption does not directly impact the amount of body fat present. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol does not increase the basal metabolic rate but rather slows it down.
3. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations. Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives. Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain. Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.
4. During patient teaching, a young woman asks the nurse the following question: 'If I get pregnant on the 'pill,' should I continue to take it?' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. The pill has no effect on pregnancy.
- B. The pill will cause miscarriage.
- C. This is a personal choice for each woman.
- D. The pill can be harmful to the fetus and should be discontinued.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: This is a personal choice for each woman.' If a woman becomes pregnant while taking birth control pills, it is generally recommended to discontinue them as they can potentially harm the fetus. However, the decision to continue or discontinue the pill in case of pregnancy is ultimately a personal choice for each woman. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills are meant to prevent pregnancy, but if a woman becomes pregnant while taking them, the situation changes. Choice B is incorrect because birth control pills do not cause miscarriage; they are intended to prevent pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect because while it is generally advised to discontinue the pill if pregnancy occurs, the decision ultimately depends on the individual circumstances and preferences of the woman.
5. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
- A. Acute myocardial infarction
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access