Nursing Elites

1. A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What critical instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast to improve absorption.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fat meal to increase its effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Atorvastatin, like other statins, is more effective when taken in the evening as the body produces more cholesterol at night. Taking it with a high-fat meal (choice D) is not recommended as it may reduce the drug's absorption. Grapefruit juice (choice B) should be avoided with atorvastatin as it can increase the risk of side effects. Taking the medication in the morning with breakfast (choice C) is not as effective as taking it at night.

2. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. A brain infection
• B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
• C. Decreased albumin blood levels
• D. Untreated chronic bronchitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

3. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

4. A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?

• A. “Have you experienced any allergic reactions to metronidazole before?”
• B. “Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?”
• C. “Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?”
• D. “Are you currently using any over-the-counter antihistamines?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.

5. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

• A. Herpes simplex I virus
• B. Bullous impetigo
• C. Necrotizing fasciitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.

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