Nursing Elites

1. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

• A. Antidepressant
• B. Protease inhibitor
• C. Beta antagonist
• D. H antagonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.

2. A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?

• A. Performing hand hygiene before and after IV insertion
• B. Rotating IV sites at least every 72 hours
• C. Minimizing tourniquet time
• D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.

3. A client who is withdrawing from alcohol has been prescribed Propranolol. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
• B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
• C. Decreases cravings.
• D. Results in mild hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include in the teaching is that Propranolol decreases cravings for alcohol. Propranolol is used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce the desire for alcohol. Choice A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase the risk for seizure activity; it can actually be used to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures. Choice B is also incorrect as Propranolol does not provide aversion therapy. Choice D is incorrect as Propranolol is not known to result in mild hypertension.

4. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

5. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

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