ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.
2. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.
3. What is the primary cause of angina?
- A. Increased oxygen demand by the heart
- B. Obstruction of the coronary arteries
- C. Lack of oxygen in the lungs
- D. Decreased blood supply to the liver
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstruction of the coronary arteries. Angina is primarily caused by a reduced blood flow to the heart due to blockages or narrowing in the coronary arteries. Choice A is incorrect because while increased oxygen demand can contribute to angina symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as angina is not caused by a lack of oxygen in the lungs. Choice D is also incorrect as angina is not related to decreased blood supply to the liver.
4. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?
- A. The Army Nurse Course
- B. Out-processing
- C. The next duty assignment
- D. The practical nurse licensure examination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course aims to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This exam is a crucial step for individuals to become licensed practical nurses, ensuring they meet the required standards and qualifications to practice in the field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the focus of the review is specifically geared towards preparing students for the licensure examination, not for other courses, administrative processes, or duty assignments.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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