ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. What causes the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with emphysema?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Bacterial infections in the lungs
- C. Air trapping in the alveoli
- D. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Air trapping in the alveoli. A barrel chest in emphysema results from the hyperinflation of the lungs due to air trapping in the alveoli. This leads to increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema is swelling caused by fluid retention in tissues, not associated with a barrel chest in emphysema. Bacterial infections in the lungs can lead to conditions like pneumonia but do not directly cause a barrel chest. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm could affect breathing mechanics but is not specifically linked to the development of a barrel chest in emphysema.
2. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:
- A. asymptomatic.
- B. acute flare.
- C. the intercritical period.
- D. chronic gout.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.
3. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?
- A. Insulin therapy
- B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
- C. Sulfonylureas
- D. Thiazolidinediones
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.
4. When teaching a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?
- A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
- B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It is important for patients to be aware of this interaction to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and oral contraceptives typically require a period of time to reach full effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.
5. A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?
- A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
- B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
- C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
- D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.
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