Nursing Elites

1. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

2. A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Rheumatoid arthritis
• B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
• C. Psoriatic arthritis
• D. Dermatomyositis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic lupus erythematosus. Joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity are classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus. Choice A, Rheumatoid arthritis, is incorrect as it typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and morning stiffness. Psoriatic arthritis (Choice C) is characterized by joint pain associated with psoriasis, which is not described in the case. Dermatomyositis (Choice D) presents with muscle weakness, skin rash, and elevated muscle enzymes, different from the symptoms presented in the case.

3. What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

• A. Oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly but not 100% foolproof.
• B. Oral contraceptives may take some time to reach full effectiveness after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions that may reduce contraceptive efficacy. It is crucial for patients to be aware of this to consider additional contraceptive measures when prescribed antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is also incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.

4. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

• A. Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?
• B. Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?
• C. Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?
• D. Is there any mold in your home that you know of?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.

5. A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Spoon-shaped nails
• C. Gait problems
• D. Petechiae

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spoon-shaped nails. In iron deficiency anemia, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are a common symptom due to changes in the nail bed. This condition is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome. While fatigue and weakness are common in iron deficiency anemia, hyperactivity (choice A) is not typically associated with this condition. Gait problems (choice C) and petechiae (choice D) are more commonly seen in other medical conditions and are not characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.

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