Nursing Elites

1. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

2. A 37-year-old woman has a 10 pack-year smoking history and has been using oral contraceptives for the past 2 years. The nurse should plan health education interventions knowing that this patient faces an increased risk of

• A. osteoporosis.
• B. dementia.
• C. myocardial infarction.
• D. deep vein thrombosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: myocardial infarction. Women aged 35 and older who smoke, especially with a history of 10 pack-years like in this case, face an increased risk of cardiovascular disorders, including myocardial infarction, when using oral contraceptives. Choice A, osteoporosis, is incorrect because smoking and oral contraceptives do not significantly increase the risk of osteoporosis. Choice B, dementia, is not directly associated with smoking, oral contraceptives, or their combination. Choice D, deep vein thrombosis, is a risk associated with oral contraceptives, especially in combination with smoking, but the highest increased risk in this case is for myocardial infarction.

3. What is the primary action of bisphosphonates when prescribed to a patient with osteoporosis?

• A. It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density.
• B. It stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
• D. It decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density." Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption carried out by osteoclasts, thereby preventing the breakdown of bones and helping to maintain or increase bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisphosphonates do not directly stimulate new bone formation, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys.

4. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?

• A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
• B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
• C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
• D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.

5. Which of the following disorders is more likely to be associated with blood in the stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Colon cancer. Colon cancer commonly presents with blood in the stool due to bleeding from the tumor. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) is associated with heartburn and regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus. Crohn's disease (Choice B) is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause symptoms like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, but it does not typically present with blood in the stool as a primary symptom. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not usually involve blood in the stool as a prominent feature.

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