Nursing Elites

1. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

2. Which of the following describes passive immunity?

• A. Vaccination against the disease
• B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
• C. Cuts or wounds that are infected and heal
• D. Having the disease in question

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.

3. A 60-year-old male client with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his family physician has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed with a chronic pain disorder. Which teaching points about chronic pain would his physician most likely emphasize to the client?

• A. Chronic pain is often difficult to treat and requires a multimodal approach.
• B. Chronic pain indicates that an underlying injury has not healed properly.
• C. Chronic pain can be managed with a single long-term medication.
• D. Chronic pain is typically less severe than acute pain but lasts longer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy. Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed. Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication. Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.

4. An influenza outbreak has spread through a long-term care residence, affecting many of the residents with severe malaise, fever, and nausea and vomiting. In an effort to curb the outbreak, the nurse has liaised with a physician to see if residents may be candidates for treatment with what drug?

• A. Saquinavir mesylate
• B. Oseltamivir phosphate
• C. Lamivudine
• D. Ribavirin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oseltamivir phosphate. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza infections. It works by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, reducing the spread of the virus in the body. Saquinavir mesylate (choice A) is used in the treatment of HIV, not influenza. Lamivudine (choice C) is also an antiviral medication primarily used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B, not influenza. Ribavirin (choice D) is used to treat certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but it is not a first-line treatment for influenza.

5. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy. What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Kidney function tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, the nurse should monitor liver function tests. Estradiol can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to assess for any signs of liver dysfunction. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to estradiol therapy. While blood glucose levels (Choice B) should be monitored in patients taking certain medications like corticosteroids or antipsychotics, it is not typically necessary for patients on estradiol therapy. Kidney function tests (Choice D) are not the priority for monitoring during estradiol therapy, as the liver is more commonly affected.

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