a client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta blocker what is the primary reason for administering this medication

ATI RN

Final Exam Pathophysiology

1. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
B. To increase cardiac output.
C. To prevent arrhythmias.
D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

2. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

3. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?

A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
B. To prevent osteoporosis
C. To increase calcium absorption
D. To maintain bone strength

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.

4. What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form initially?

A. Interruption of blood flow to the brain
B. Injury to the coronary artery endothelium
C. Administration of statin medications
D. Poor dietary modifications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to injury to the coronary artery endothelium, which triggers a cascade of events leading to plaque buildup. Choice A is incorrect because atherosclerotic plaques do not form due to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. Choice C is incorrect as statin medications are actually used to help lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of plaque formation. Choice D is incorrect as poor dietary modifications can contribute to atherosclerosis but are not the initial cause of plaque formation.

5. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.