Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

• A. Pain severity
• B. Wound drainage
• C. Tissue integrity
• D. Airway patency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

2. A client developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased serum calcium level
• B. Decreased level of serum lipids
• C. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• D. Increased platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat globules enter the bloodstream and can lead to various complications, including a decrease in serum calcium levels. This occurs due to the formation of fat emboli in the vessels, which can interfere with calcium metabolism. Therefore, a decreased serum calcium level is an expected laboratory finding in a client with fat embolism syndrome.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Widened QRS complexes
• B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• C. Bounding peripheral pulses
• D. Warm, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is a condition characterized by increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in acidosis. One of the potential consequences of respiratory acidosis is the development of electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac conduction abnormalities, manifested as widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Therefore, in a client with respiratory acidosis, the healthcare professional should expect to find widened QRS complexes as a result of the associated hyperkalemia.

5. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Albuterol (Proventil)
• B. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
• C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• D. Fluticasone (Flovent)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.

Similar Questions