Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

• A. Pain severity
• B. Wound drainage
• C. Tissue integrity
• D. Airway patency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min now has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• C. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• D. Assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness. This assessment helps determine if the decreased respiratory rate is affecting the client's oxygenation. By evaluating the client's mental status and level of consciousness, the nurse can promptly identify any signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia, allowing for timely intervention and appropriate adjustments to the oxygen therapy or other treatments.

3. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best?

• A. All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement projects.
• B. Even as a new nurse, you can implement activities designed to improve care.
• C. It's easy to identify which indicators should be used to measure quality improvement.
• D. You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response is to encourage the newly graduated nurse to actively participate in quality improvement initiatives. Being new does not preclude one from contributing to improving care processes and outcomes. By engaging in small activities focused on quality improvement, the new nurse can start making a positive impact and learn valuable skills early in their career.

4. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

5. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

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