Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse include in patient education for a patient prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder?

• A. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• B. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor medication levels.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• D. It is safe to stop the medication abruptly if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular blood tests are crucial when taking valproic acid to monitor the medication levels in the bloodstream. This monitoring helps ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage for effective treatment and to prevent adverse effects associated with either subtherapeutic or toxic levels of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between valproic acid and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as valproic acid can generally be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping valproic acid can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

2. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a healthcare professional expect to assess?

• A. An achieved state of relaxation
• B. An achieved insight into one's feelings
• C. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
• D. An enhanced ability to problem-solve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When meditation is effective, a healthcare professional should expect to assess an achieved state of relaxation. Meditation is known to facilitate a special state of consciousness through concentrated focus, leading to a sense of calm and relaxation. While meditation can sometimes provide insights into one's feelings, the primary outcome related to stress management is the promotion of relaxation. Choices C and D are not directly related to the typical outcomes of effective meditation for stress management.

3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

4. James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for the day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?

• A. There are no such things as demons. What you saw were hallucinations.
• B. It is not possible for anyone to enter your room at night. You are safe here.
• C. You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night.
• D. That must have been very frightening, but we'll check on you at night and you'll be safe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Response C is the most therapeutic as it shows empathy and encourages the patient to express their feelings and share more about their experience. By actively listening and inviting the patient to talk, the nurse creates a supportive environment that can help the patient feel heard and understood, which is essential in building trust and rapport in therapeutic communication with individuals experiencing schizophrenia.

5. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

• A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
• B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
• C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
• D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

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