Nursing Elites

1. A client displays signs and symptoms indicative of hypochondriasis. The nurse would initially expect to see:

• A. Self-preoccupation
• B. La belle indifference
• C. Fear of physicians
• D. Insight into the source of their fears

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypochondriasis, individuals are excessively preoccupied with and worried about having a serious illness, despite reassurance from medical professionals. This self-preoccupation is a key characteristic of hypochondriasis. 'La belle indifference' refers to a lack of concern or distress about symptoms, which is not typically seen in hypochondriasis. Fear of physicians may be present due to the individual's persistent belief in their illness despite medical reassurance. Insight into the source of their fears is usually lacking in hypochondriasis, as individuals often believe their physical symptoms are evidence of a serious illness.

2. Which assessment question asked by the nurse demonstrates an understanding of comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Do rules apply to you?
• B. What do you do to manage anxiety?
• C. Do you have a history of disordered eating?
• D. Do you think that you drink too much?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Questions about anxiety management, disordered eating, and alcohol use are relevant to identifying comorbid conditions with major depressive disorder, but the question 'Do rules apply to you?' does not directly address common comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder.

3. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

4. The school nurse has been alerted to the fact that an 8-year-old boy routinely playacts as a police officer, 'locking up' other children on the playground to the point where the children get scared. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely an indication of:

• A. The need to dominate others
• B. Inventing traumatic events
• C. A need to develop close relationships
• D. A potential symptom of traumatization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The behavior of an 8-year-old boy playacting as a police officer and 'locking up' other children to the point of scaring them is likely a symptom of traumatization. Children may reenact traumatic experiences through play, and acting out aggressive or controlling roles can be a sign of underlying trauma. This behavior should be further assessed and addressed with appropriate support and intervention to help the child process and cope with any potential trauma.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

Similar Questions