substance abuse is often present in people diagnosed with bipolar disorder laura a 28 year old with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder drinks alcohol ins
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023

1. Substance abuse is often present in individuals diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Laura, a 28-year-old with a bipolar disorder diagnosis, chooses to drink alcohol instead of taking her prescribed medications. The nurse caring for this patient recognizes that:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with bipolar disorder may turn to alcohol as a form of self-medication to cope with their symptoms. This behavior is often seen as an attempt to manage mood swings and alleviate distress. It is important for healthcare providers to address and manage substance abuse issues in patients with bipolar disorder to ensure proper treatment and overall well-being.

2. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should be included in the teaching? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique used to challenge and change negative thought patterns, not specifically a relaxation technique. Therefore, choice D, cognitive restructuring, does not apply to relaxation techniques for managing anxiety.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. When assessing a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder who states, 'I feel like I can't go on,' which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's risk for suicide. By asking if the client has a plan to commit suicide, the nurse can determine the immediate safety of the client and take appropriate interventions to prevent harm. Administering antidepressant medication is not the first action to take in this situation as assessing the client's safety is the priority. Encouraging the client to attend a support group or contacting the client's family, although beneficial, are not immediate actions to ensure the client's safety in a crisis situation.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with OCD, it is essential to gradually limit the time allotted for compulsive behaviors. This intervention helps the client develop alternative coping mechanisms. Encouraging suppression or setting strict limits on compulsive behaviors can exacerbate the client's anxiety, making it crucial to approach the care plan with a gradual reduction strategy. Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed does not promote progress towards managing OCD symptoms and may reinforce maladaptive patterns of behavior.

Similar Questions

Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety?
Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?
During an assessment of a client with suspected substance use disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that doesn't apply.
Which statement about the concept of psychoses is most accurate?
A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

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