ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. What assessment is the nurse performing when a client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides, and then asked to close the eyes while the nurse observes for a full minute?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Weber test
- C. Rinne test
- D. Babinski test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Romberg test. The Romberg test is used to assess balance and proprioception. During the test, the client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides to observe their balance. Then, the client is asked to close their eyes while the nurse continues to observe for a full minute. This test helps in detecting any issues with proprioception and balance, which may be compromised in conditions affecting the nervous system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Weber test is used to assess hearing in each ear, the Rinne test is used to compare air and bone conduction of sound, and the Babinski test is used to assess the integrity of the corticospinal tract.
2. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?
- A. It is metabolized in the liver.
- B. It binds to acetylcholine.
- C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
- D. It causes phagocytosis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.
3. Which ability should Nurse Rebecca expect from a client in the mild stage of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?
- A. Remembering the daily schedule
- B. Recalling past events
- C. Coping with anxiety
- D. Solving problems of daily living
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the mild stage of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type, clients can often recall past events but may have difficulty with new information. Therefore, Nurse Rebecca should expect the client to have the ability to recall past events. Choice A is incorrect because remembering the daily schedule may become challenging as the disease progresses. Choice C is incorrect as clients in the mild stage may experience anxiety, but coping with anxiety is not a specific ability associated with this stage of dementia. Choice D is incorrect as solving problems of daily living becomes more challenging as the disease advances, not in the mild stage.
4. When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?
- A. Golgi tendon reflex
- B. Myotatic reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Crossed-extensor reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.
5. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?
- A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
- D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.
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