ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A client on an acute medicine unit of a hospital with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction is reporting intense, diffuse pain in her abdomen. Which physiologic phenomenon is most likely contributing to her complaint?
- A. Somatic pain resulting from pressure on the parietal peritoneum
- B. Referred pain from her small bowel
- C. Visceral pain resulting from distension and ischemia
- D. Neuropathic pain resulting from autonomic dysfunction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Visceral pain is associated with distension, ischemia, and inflammation of internal organs. In the case of a small bowel obstruction, the intense, diffuse pain reported by the client is likely due to the distension and ischemia of the small bowel. Somatic pain (Choice A) would be more localized and sharp, typically arising from the parietal peritoneum. Referred pain (Choice B) is pain perceived at a site distant from the actual pathology. Neuropathic pain (Choice D) involves dysfunction or damage to the nervous system and is not typically associated with the described physiologic phenomenon of distension and ischemia in the context of a small bowel obstruction.
2. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.
3. Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:
- A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
- B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
- C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
- D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.
4. Which of the following types of vitamin or mineral deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and is associated with lower extremity paresthesias?
- A. Vitamin B12
- B. Folate
- C. Iron
- D. Vitamin K
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms, including lower extremity paresthesias. Folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anemia but typically does not present with neurological symptoms. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, not megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin K deficiency is associated with coagulation abnormalities, not megaloblastic anemia.
5. Joseph, a 12-year-old child, complains to the school nurse about nausea and dizziness. While assessing the child, the nurse notices a black eye that looks like an injury. This is the third time in 1 month that the child has visited the nurse. Each time, the child provides vague explanations for various injuries. Which of the following is the school nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Contact the child’s parents and ask about the child’s injuries.
- B. Encourage the child to be honest about the injuries.
- C. Question the teacher about the child's injuries.
- D. Report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The school nurse's priority intervention in this situation is to report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities. Given the pattern of unexplained injuries and vague explanations provided by the child, it raises significant concerns for possible abuse. Reporting to the appropriate authorities is crucial to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Contacting the child's parents (Choice A) may not be appropriate if abuse is suspected, as it could potentially put the child at further risk. Merely encouraging the child to be honest (Choice B) does not address the immediate safety concerns. Questioning the teacher (Choice C) is not the appropriate initial action when abuse is suspected; reporting to authorities should take precedence.
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