Nursing Elites

1. A client on an acute medicine unit of a hospital with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction is reporting intense, diffuse pain in her abdomen. Which physiologic phenomenon is most likely contributing to her complaint?

• A. Somatic pain resulting from pressure on the parietal peritoneum
• B. Referred pain from her small bowel
• C. Visceral pain resulting from distension and ischemia
• D. Neuropathic pain resulting from autonomic dysfunction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visceral pain is associated with distension, ischemia, and inflammation of internal organs. In the case of a small bowel obstruction, the intense, diffuse pain reported by the client is likely due to the distension and ischemia of the small bowel. Somatic pain (Choice A) would be more localized and sharp, typically arising from the parietal peritoneum. Referred pain (Choice B) is pain perceived at a site distant from the actual pathology. Neuropathic pain (Choice D) involves dysfunction or damage to the nervous system and is not typically associated with the described physiologic phenomenon of distension and ischemia in the context of a small bowel obstruction.

2. Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents?

• A. Intractable seizure disorders
• B. Increased intracranial pressure
• C. Organ transplantation
• D. HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Organ transplantation. Immunosuppressant agents are commonly used in organ transplant recipients to prevent organ rejection by suppressing the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Intractable seizure disorders are often managed with antiepileptic drugs, increased intracranial pressure is managed through various means like surgery and medications, and HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance is typically treated with antiretroviral therapy, not immunosuppressant agents.

3. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which she suffered a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which of the following assessments should be the priority?

• A. Monitoring urinary output
• B. Monitoring heart rate and rhythm
• C. Monitoring respiratory rate
• D. Monitoring the client's pain levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring heart rate and rhythm. With a C5 spinal cord injury, monitoring heart rate and rhythm is crucial as it can impact autonomic regulation. This level of injury can affect cardiac function due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve fibers. Monitoring urinary output may be important to assess for urinary retention, but it is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring respiratory rate is essential in all patients, in this case, cardiovascular stability takes precedence. Pain management is important but is not the priority when assessing a client with a C5 spinal cord injury.

4. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.

5. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

• A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
• B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
• C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
• D. An incision from an open appendectomy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

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