Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer pain relief medication.
• B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
• C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
• D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.

2. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

• A. Suprapubic pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Low serum creatinine level
• D. Palpable kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.

3. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

• A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
• B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
• C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
• D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

4. A patient is being educated about sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?

• A. I can take this medication with nitroglycerin.
• B. This medication can cause an erection lasting more than 4 hours.
• C. I should not take this medication if I am taking medications containing nitrates.
• D. This medication is safe to take with any over-the-counter medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil should not be taken with medications containing nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because priapism (prolonged erection) is a serious side effect but does not require immediate intervention like severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as it correctly identifies a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice D is incorrect because not all over-the-counter medications are safe to take with sildenafil, and interactions can occur.

5. A school nurse is meeting with a high school student who mentions that she is frustrated with her repeated outbreaks of cold sores. The student states that she tried an over-the-counter topical cream but that it failed to produce an appreciable improvement. The nurse should recognize that this student used what medication?

• A. Ganciclovir
• B. Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
• C. Famciclovir (Famvir)
• D. Docosanol (Abreva)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Docosanol (Abreva). Docosanol is an over-the-counter topical cream commonly used to treat cold sores caused by the herpes simplex virus. It works by inhibiting viral fusion to host cell membranes, reducing the spread of the virus. Ganciclovir (Choice A) is an antiviral medication used for the treatment of cytomegalovirus infections. Valacyclovir (Choice B) and Famciclovir (Choice C) are prescription antiviral medications used to treat herpes simplex virus infections but are not typically available over-the-counter like Docosanol.

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