in which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

2. A nurse is providing education to a patient starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the long-term risks associated with HRT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly with long-term use.

3. What is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An allergic reaction is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients. When individuals with asthma come in contact with allergens like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, it can lead to an allergic reaction that triggers bronchospasm. Infections, excessive exercise, and high altitudes can exacerbate asthma symptoms, but they are not the most common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients.

4. A patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to ___________ of the remaining liver cells.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Compensatory hyperplasia is the process by which the remaining cells increase in number to adapt to the reduced size of the liver. In this case, after the removal of a lobe of the liver, the remaining cells undergo compensatory hyperplasia to compensate for the lost tissue. Metaplasia refers to the reversible change of one cell type to another, not an increase in cell number. Organ atrophy is the decrease in organ size due to cell shrinkage or loss, which is opposite to an increase in cell number seen in compensatory hyperplasia. Physiologic hyperplasia is the increase in cell number in response to a normal physiological demand, not specifically due to the removal of a portion of the organ.

5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

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