Nursing Elites

1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

2. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.

3. Which of the following statements characterizes irritable bowel syndrome?

• A. Typically does not cause anemia
• B. Not generally associated with intestinal E. coli
• C. Can be associated with anxiety and/or depression
• D. Not often associated with bloody diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. While IBS can lead to symptoms like diarrhea or constipation, it typically does not cause anemia (choice A), is not generally associated with intestinal E. coli (choice B), and is not often associated with bloody diarrhea (choice D). However, IBS can indeed be associated with anxiety and/or depression (choice C) due to the gut-brain axis, a bidirectional communication system between the gut and the brain. This association is well-documented in IBS patients, highlighting the importance of considering psychological factors in managing the condition.

4. When a healthcare professional is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the healthcare professional calls these erythrocytes:

• A. Hyperchromic
• B. Hypochromic
• C. Macrocytic
• D. Microcytic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythrocytes with an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin are called hypochromic. Hyperchromic refers to erythrocytes with an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin. Macrocytic indicates larger than normal red blood cells, while microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct term is hypochromic.

5. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?

• A. Cryptococcus neoformans
• B. Candida albicans
• C. Aspergillus
• D. Dermatophytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.

Similar Questions