ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.
2. After a thoracentesis on a client with a pleural effusion, which nursing intervention is most important post-procedure?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection.
- B. Assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma.
- C. Monitor vital signs and respiratory status.
- D. Instruct the client to rest and limit physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma. After a thoracentesis, it is crucial to monitor for any bleeding or hematoma formation at the puncture site, as this can lead to complications. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is essential but is usually a delayed concern compared to the immediate risk of bleeding post-procedure. While monitoring vital signs and respiratory status (Choice C) is important, assessing for bleeding takes precedence to address any immediate complications. Instructing the client to rest and limit physical activity (Choice D) is relevant for general post-procedure care but is not the most critical intervention in this scenario.
3. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Renal ultrasound
- C. Cystoscopy
- D. Intravenous pyelogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.
4. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:
- A. Hypochromic and microcytic.
- B. Hypochromic and macrocytic.
- C. Normochromic and microcytic.
- D. Normochromic and normocytic.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is typically characterized by normochromic (normal hemoglobin content) and normocytic (normal cell size) red blood cells. Choice A, hypochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because hypochromic refers to reduced hemoglobin content and microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells, which are not typically seen in anemia of chronic inflammation. Choice B, hypochromic and macrocytic, is also incorrect as macrocytic refers to larger than normal red blood cells. Choice C, normochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because microcytic red blood cells are smaller than normal. Therefore, the correct classification for anemia of chronic inflammation is normochromic and normocytic.
5. What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)?
- A. The build-up of infectious by-products in the lymph nodes
- B. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium
- C. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs
- D. The build-up of bile in the stomach and gallbladder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD) is the insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium. CAD is a condition where the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. This lack of oxygenated blood can result in chest pain, known as angina, and if a coronary artery becomes completely blocked, it can cause a heart attack. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A refers to an issue related to the lymphatic system, choice C is about gas exchange in the lungs, and choice D describes a problem with bile accumulation in the digestive system, none of which are characteristics of CAD.
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