ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.
2. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?
- A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
- B. Activation of opioid receptors
- C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
- D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.
3. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Bronchospasm
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
4. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize about the risks associated with this therapy?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. HRT may improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can decrease the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
- D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur.
5. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?
- A. Infective endocarditis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Mitral valve stenosis
- D. Aortic regurgitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.
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