Nursing Elites

1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

2. A 9-year-old girl has a diffuse collection of symptoms that are indicative of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control. She also suffers from persistent fluid and electrolyte imbalances. On which aspect of the nervous system listed below would her health care providers focus their diagnostic efforts?

• A. The thalamus
• B. The pituitary
• C. The hypothalamus
• D. The midbrain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating endocrine and autonomic functions, including fluid and electrolyte balance. In this case, the girl's symptoms of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control, along with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, point towards dysfunction in the hypothalamus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thalamus is mainly involved in sensory relay, the pituitary gland regulates various hormones but is controlled by the hypothalamus, and the midbrain is responsible for motor control and arousal, not endocrine or autonomic functions.

3. In a patient with chronic kidney disease and a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

• A. Iron supplementation
• B. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
• C. Blood transfusion
• D. Vitamin B12 supplementation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, anemia commonly occurs due to decreased erythropoietin production. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents, such as erythropoietin or darbepoetin, are the mainstay of treatment to stimulate red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is more appropriate for iron-deficiency anemia, not the anemia of chronic kidney disease. Blood transfusion is reserved for severe cases or acute blood loss. Vitamin B12 supplementation is indicated for megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, not specifically in chronic kidney disease-related anemia.

4. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
• B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions. It is crucial for patients to be informed about this to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that immediate protection is conferred, which is not the case. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

Similar Questions