in which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

3. Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients who are hospitalized and immunocompromised are at the highest risk for pneumonia due to their weakened immune systems. Choice A is incorrect as young and healthy individuals typically have stronger immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise can actually boost the immune system and reduce the risk of infections. Choice D is incorrect as having adequate respiratory function does not necessarily correlate with the risk of developing pneumonia.

4. Which of the following steps occurs first during hemostasis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vascular spasm is the initial step in hemostasis, where blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow to the injured area. This constriction helps limit blood loss until further steps like platelet plug formation and coagulation can take place. Platelet plug formation and coagulation occur after the vascular spasm, making them incorrect choices. Dissolution of the clot happens much later in the healing process, after the injury has sufficiently healed.

5. A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spoon-shaped nails. In iron deficiency anemia, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are a common symptom due to changes in the nail bed. This condition is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome. While fatigue and weakness are common in iron deficiency anemia, hyperactivity (choice A) is not typically associated with this condition. Gait problems (choice C) and petechiae (choice D) are more commonly seen in other medical conditions and are not characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.

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