Nursing Elites

1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

2. In osteoporosis, what is the expected therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)?

• A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It decreases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in strengthening bones, reducing the risk of fractures, and improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents bone loss. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily decrease the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

3. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?

• A. Hypersecretion of growth hormone
• B. Excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands
• C. Insufficient production of insulin
• D. Increased levels of ACTH

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.

4. When arterial blood pressure declines, the kidneys secrete a hormone to increase blood pressure and peripheral resistance. What is this hormone called?

• A. Renin
• B. Antidiuretic hormone
• C. Atrial natriuretic
• D. Insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Renin is the correct answer. When arterial blood pressure decreases, the kidneys release renin, which triggers a series of reactions ultimately leading to an increase in blood pressure and peripheral resistance. Antidiuretic hormone (choice B) is involved in water retention, atrial natriuretic hormone (choice C) promotes sodium excretion and lowers blood pressure, and insulin (choice D) regulates glucose metabolism, not blood pressure.

5. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

• A. Adaptation
• B. Pathologic calcification
• C. Apoptosis
• D. Necrosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

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