in which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

2. A patient is to be administered an immunization. The serum contains aluminum phosphate. What route is most appropriate to administer this immunization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate route to administer an immunization containing aluminum phosphate is intramuscularly. Aluminum phosphate is commonly used as an adjuvant in vaccines to enhance the immune response. Intramuscular administration allows for the vaccine to be delivered into the muscle tissue, where it can be effectively absorbed by the body's immune cells. Subcutaneous administration is not ideal for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate, as it may not elicit the desired immune response. Intravenous administration is typically reserved for specific medications or situations that require rapid absorption into the bloodstream. Oral administration is not suitable for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate as they would be degraded in the gastrointestinal tract.

3. Cellular swelling is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cellular swelling is indeed evident early in all types of cellular injury. This occurs due to the influx of water into the cell, leading to swelling. Choice A is incorrect because cellular swelling is reversible if the injury is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because cellular swelling is not manifested by decreased intracellular sodium; in fact, it is associated with increased intracellular sodium due to water influx. Choice D is incorrect as option B is the correct statement.

4. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.

5. Which of the following might result from severe diarrhea?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic acidosis. Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis because the loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool results in an overall decrease in the body's bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, usually due to inadequate alveolar ventilation. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, usually caused by conditions like vomiting. Respiratory alkalosis (choice C) is a condition of low blood carbon dioxide levels and high pH, often due to hyperventilation.

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