Nursing Elites

1. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

• A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
• B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
• C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
• D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

2. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

• A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
• B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
• C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
• D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.

3. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?

• A. Chest pain; cough
• B. Diarrhea; wheezing
• C. Wheezing; dyspnea
• D. Tachypnea; constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wheezing and dyspnea are typical symptoms of asthma. Wheezing refers to a high-pitched whistling sound while breathing, and dyspnea is shortness of breath. These symptoms are classic signs of airway obstruction and inflammation seen in asthma. Choice A is incorrect as chest pain is not a typical symptom of asthma, though coughing can occur. Choice B is incorrect as diarrhea is not associated with asthma, while wheezing is a common symptom. Choice D is incorrect as tachypnea (rapid breathing) can occur in asthma, but constipation is not a typical symptom.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing a relapse. Which of the following factors is most likely contributing to the relapse?

• A. Taking an over-the-counter multivitamin
• B. Experiencing high levels of emotional stress
• C. Getting a flu shot
• D. Engaging in strenuous physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emotional stress can trigger a relapse in multiple sclerosis by exacerbating symptoms. While taking an over-the-counter multivitamin and getting a flu shot are generally safe, they are not typically known to trigger MS relapses. Engaging in strenuous physical activity, if done carefully, can actually have benefits for individuals with MS by improving strength and mobility, so it is less likely to be the cause of a relapse.

5. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?

• A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
• B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
• C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
• D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.

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