how should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a schilling test for pernicious anemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

2. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

4. A home care nurse visits a patient who is bed-bound and lives in a 12-story high-rise apartment complex. Her daughter states that she has small red skin lesions over her body and she has been itching. What parasite is most likely responsible for this patient's skin lesions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Sarcoptes scabiei. Sarcoptes scabiei is a parasitic mite that causes scabies, characterized by small red skin lesions and intense itching. Pediculosis corporis (choice B) refers to body lice, which do not cause the specific symptoms described. Pediculosis pubis (choice C) is caused by pubic lice and presents differently from the symptoms described. Toxoplasma gondii (choice D) is a parasite that causes toxoplasmosis, but it does not typically manifest with small red skin lesions and itching.

5. During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.

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