a client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes which of the follo a client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes which of the follo
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Nutrition

1. A client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: “Raw fruits and vegetables will be easier for your body to digest.”

Rationale: During chemotherapy treatments for chronic lymphocytic leukemia, raw fruits and vegetables are recommended as they are easier for the body to digest. This choice provides essential nutrients and is gentle on the digestive system. Option A is incorrect because staying hydrated is crucial during chemotherapy. Option B is incorrect as low-calorie foods may not provide sufficient energy during treatment. Option C is incorrect because high-fat foods are not typically recommended due to potential digestive issues.

2. A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy, and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client may have subcutaneous emphysema, where air leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation to ensure adequate oxygen supply. If the client is stable, the nurse can then proceed to palpate the skin of the upper chest to check for subcutaneous emphysema. If the client is unstable, the nurse should promptly notify the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may be necessary for oxygenating the client, but assessing oxygen saturation comes first to guide further interventions.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

4. A client states that he has been experiencing oozing from his wounds. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: Culture the wound

Rationale:

5. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.

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