ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
- A. B cell deficiency
- B. T cell deficiency
- C. Combined immunodeficiency
- D. Complement deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
2. The early stages of atheroma development are characterized by:
- A. macrophages full of oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL; i.e., foam cells) in the intima
- B. accumulation of lipids in the intima (i.e., fatty streak)
- C. accumulation of proteins such as collagen and elastin (i.e., fibrous cap)
- D. development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the early stages of atheroma development, macrophages accumulate oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and transform into foam cells, leading to the formation of fatty streaks in the intima of blood vessels. This process is a hallmark of the initial stages of atherosclerosis. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the accumulation of lipids in the intima, which is a later event following foam cell formation. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to the accumulation of proteins forming the fibrous cap, which occurs at a later stage to stabilize the atheroma. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core, typically seen in advanced atherosclerosis rather than the early stages.
3. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.
4. Which of the following is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
- A. Anaphylaxis
- B. Indigestion
- C. Beta cell destruction
- D. ABO transfusion reaction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a classic example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In Type 1 hypersensitivity, allergens trigger an immediate immune response mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This reaction can result in symptoms ranging from mild itching and hives to severe conditions like anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening emergency. The other options, such as indigestion (choice B), beta cell destruction (choice C), and ABO transfusion reaction (choice D), are not classified as Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Indigestion is typically related to gastrointestinal disturbances, beta cell destruction is associated with autoimmune conditions like type 1 diabetes, and ABO transfusion reaction involves antibodies targeting incompatible blood groups, which is a different immune mechanism compared to Type 1 hypersensitivity.
5. The nurse knows which phenomenon listed below is an accurate statement about axonal transport?
- A. Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport allow for the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the central nervous system (CNS).
- B. Materials can be transported to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components.
- C. The unidirectional nature of the axonal transport system protects the CNS against potential pathogens.
- D. Axonal transport facilitates the movement of electrical impulses but precludes the transport of molecular materials.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Axonal transport involves the movement of materials to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components, which is essential for cell survival. Choice A is incorrect because while anterograde and retrograde axonal transport are involved in the movement of materials, they do not specifically relate to the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the CNS. Choice C is incorrect because the unidirectional nature of axonal transport does not primarily function to protect the CNS against pathogens. Choice D is incorrect as axonal transport is responsible for the movement of various materials, not just electrical impulses.
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