Nursing Elites

1. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?

• A. To increase bone density
• B. To reduce the risk of fractures
• C. To enhance sexual performance
• D. To restore testosterone levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.

2. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

• A. Urinalysis
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Cystoscopy
• D. Intravenous pyelogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

3. When educating a client about to undergo a pacemaker insertion, the nurse explains the normal phases of cardiac muscle tissue. During the repolarization phase, the nurse will stress that membranes must be repolarized before they can be re-excited. Within the cell, the nurse understands that:

• A. Potassium channels open while sodium channels close, causing repolarization to the resting state.
• B. The influx of calcium is the primary stimulus for the repolarization of cardiac tissue.
• C. Only the electrical activity within the heart will determine when repolarization occurs.
• D. The cell membranes need to stay calm, resulting in muscle tissue becoming refractory.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the repolarization phase of cardiac muscle tissue, potassium channels open while sodium channels close. This process is crucial for the cardiac muscle to return to its resting state after depolarization. Potassium moving out of the cell and sodium staying out helps reset the membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next depolarization phase. The influx of calcium is not the primary stimulus for repolarization in cardiac tissue; it is mainly involved in the depolarization phase. While electrical activity within the heart influences repolarization, the specific ion movements described in choice A are what physiologically drive repolarization. Cell membranes need to be in an active state during repolarization, not calm, to facilitate the necessary ion movements for muscle tissue to properly function.

4. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

• A. Decreased insulin production
• B. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production
• C. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
• D. Increased production of insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of ADH, which leads to water retention and dilution of blood sodium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because SIADH is not associated with decreased insulin production, decreased ADH production, or increased production of insulin.

5. A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?

• A. Avanafil (Stendra)
• B. Tadalafil (Cialis)
• C. Vardenafil (Levitra)
• D. Alprostadil (Caverject)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.

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